Was Holocaust part of WWII?

[Schuultz]

Can you get more specific?

[navyson]

How did South Vietnam get into this?

[Schuultz]

@navyson:

Red Herring is the term, I think...

[Adrian Wainer]

How did South Vietnam get into this?

Well if a new World order was created after World War 2 ensuring proper rights in respecting the sovereignty of nations, where did South Vietnam go? And did the German Democratic Republic properly reflect the aspirations of the people contained within its territory.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LdZVsFjWnbI

Best and Warm Regards
Adrian Wainer

[Uyraell]

"South VietNam" did Not Exist til approximately 1947.

[Uyraell]

The Holocaust was manifestly NOT part of WW2.

It took place during that conflict, yes, as did the activities of H731, and various other illegal, immoral, activities.
NONE of those can be said to have been PART of WW2, merely to have occurred within the same Time Frame.

International Jurisprudence has long since established this viewpoint as De Jure Fact.


Regards, Uyraell.

[Uyraell]

110% nonsense!

A state derives its status solely from international law, which prior to WWII was largely expressed in the Montevideo Convention of 1933.

That is, however, utterly irrelevant to Germany's statehood under the Nazis as Germany was already unquestionably a state long before the Nazis took power. Its status as a state was not altered by that.

You are confusing the legitimacy of a government with the existence of a state, as you are confusing the Third Reich, which was a Nazi construction, with the state of Germany which existed independently of the Third Reich in international law. As, for example, did the British Empire exist independently of Britain.

As for there being a necessary moral basis for statehood, nowhere does this have any relevance in international law, which is the sole source for determining whether or not a state exists.

The way I was taught it was: "A State is a geopolitical entity formed from the expressed (presumably cohesive) will of its' populace, within its' own borders."

Cases in point: Montenegro, Dalmatia, Poland, France. While each had exerted upon it various international elements, such influences came about as a result of the definition I give above.

"Moral Basis" as such never existed in International Jurisprudence until AFTER the Nuremburg Trials and the events you cite.
Retroactive application of legislation was outlawed under Roman Law, which observance held good until Nuremburg Trials et-al.

Warm Regards, Uyraell.